Here's something I've wondered about: If I run a Marshall-emulating amp-in-a-box through a Blues Jr., why would the Fender then sound like a Marshall? How does that equation work out? How can the sound of the fx pedal trump the sound of the amp it's being run through? I'm not saying that I expect any amp-in-a-box to sound exactly like it's intended emulation. But I'm just trying to understand what it might be about the character of the pedal that would come through more strongly than the sound of the amp. What I'm looking for here is some kind of technical info which might explain this, not the obvious simplifications such as, 'A pedal emulation will never sound like the real thing.' Most of us gather that much. I want to know how an 'fx trumping the tone of the amp' design might be effectively achieved (relatively speaking, of course.) Thanks in advance!