urizen
Silver Supporting Member
- Messages
- 11,060
I not infrequently surprise myself w/ my own ignorance, as has happened again just last night w/ one of my amps---I have a '99 VibraTrem 20 (since new, GZ34 and a 1x12 Greenback) that I THOUGHT I knew , until, for the FIRST time last night, I tried playing through input 2 instead of 1 (I just never played through the 2 before, since I "knew" it was "only" for playing at a slightly lower volume
). Short story long, playing a Lollar CC and Tele Special combo w/ 4-way switching, I was struck by what I perceive to be a definite tonal difference---"sweeter", for lack of a better word, through the #2, and the "extra mo' " p'up setting was more defined AND harmonically rich than I had thought previously through the # 1.
Is it just my 'magination/novelty affect, or is there actually some difference in voicing 'twixt the #1 and #2 inputs on that Top Hat model?
). Short story long, playing a Lollar CC and Tele Special combo w/ 4-way switching, I was struck by what I perceive to be a definite tonal difference---"sweeter", for lack of a better word, through the #2, and the "extra mo' " p'up setting was more defined AND harmonically rich than I had thought previously through the # 1.Is it just my 'magination/novelty affect, or is there actually some difference in voicing 'twixt the #1 and #2 inputs on that Top Hat model?
